Bihar Board 12th Biology Objective Important Questions Part 1
Bihar Board 12th Biology Objective Important Questions Part 1
BSEB 12th Biology Objective Important Questions Part 1
In following Questions. There are only one correct answer. You have to choose the correct answer.
Question 1.
A typical angiospermic embryo sac at maturity is eight nucleate and:
(a) Single celled
(b) Four celled
(c) Seven celled
(d) Eight celled
Answer:
(c) Seven celled
Question 2.
In animals, juvenile phase is followed by-
(a) Vegetative phase
(b) Senescent phase
(c) Reproductive phase
(d) Old age
Answer:
(b) Senescent phase
Question 3.
The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a pea plant is 14. The number of chromosomes in the microspore mother cells of same plant shall be
(a) 14
(b) 7
(c) 28
(d) 10
Answer:
(a) 14
Question 4.
Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by
(a) Rhizome
(b) Sucker
(c) Runner
(d) Offset
Answer:
(b) Sucker
Question 5.
In angiosperms, male gametes are formed by the division of:
(a) Microspore
(b) Vegetative cell
(c) Generative cell
(d) Microspore mother cell
Answer:
(a) Microspore
Question 6.
The pollen grains from another reach to stigma of another flower of same plant is called:
(a) Autogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(c) Geitonogamy
(d) Karyogamy
Answer:
(c) Geitonogamy
Question 7.
In following pollination which one is autogamous?
(a) Xenogamy
(b) Geitonogamy
(c) Chasmogamy
(d) Cleistogamy
Answer:
(d) Cleistogamy
Question 8.
Synergids are:
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Tetraploid
Answer:
(a) Haploid
Question 9.
Apomictic embryo is citrus arise from:
(a) Synergids
(b) Diploid egg
(c) Maternal sporophytic tissue
(d) Antipodal cells
Answer:
(c) Maternal sporophytic tissue
Question 10.
Oestrous cycle occurs in females of:
(a) Apes
(b) Humans
(c) Monkeys
(d) Cow
Answer:
(d) Cow
Question 11.
In followings which one is not a method of asexual reproduction?
(a) Budding
(b) Sowing
(c) Layering
(d) Binary fission
Answer:
(b) Sowing
Question 12.
No individual is immortal except:
(a) Single celled organisms
(b) Green plants
(c) Sponges
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
(a) Single celled organisms
Question 13.
The offsprings those are exactly identical to one another as well as identical to their parents is known as:
(a) Twins
(b) Replicates
(c) Drones
(d) Clones
Answer:
(d) Clones
Question 14.
In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into:
(a) Embryo sac
(b) Ovule
(c) Endosperm
(d) Pollen sac
Answer:
(a) Embryo sac
Question 15.
Tunica albuginea is the covering of:
(a) Liver
(b) Spleen
(c) Testes
(d) Ovary
Answer:
(c) Testes
Question 16.
Acrosome of a sperm is formed from:
(a) Lysosome
(b) Golgi body
(c) E.R.
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(b) Golgi body
Question 17.
Testes are extra abdominal for:
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) More spermatogenesis
(c) Less spermatogenesis
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) More spermatogenesis
Question 18.
Testes are attached to scrotum by:
(a) Ligaments
(b) Tendons
(c) Gubemaculum
(d) Cords
Answer:
(c) Gubemaculum
Question 19.
In epididymis:
(a) Sperms are nourished
(b) Sperms mature
(c) Sperms are stored
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Sperms mature
Question 20.
The nutritive rolls found in seminiferous tubules are:
(a) Leydig cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Spermatogonial cells
(d) Chromaffin cells
Answer:
(b) Sertoli cells
Question 21.
Sperm preparation before entry into the ovum is called:
(a) Maturation
(b) Insemination
(c) Capacitation
(d) Fertilization
Answer:
(c) Capacitation
Question 22.
Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from:
(a) Acrosome
(b) Polar bodies
(c) Mature eggs
(d) Middle piece of sperms
Answer:
(c) Mature eggs
Question 23.
The hormone which inhibits the development of graffian follicles & ovulation is?
(a) FSH
(b) LH
(c) Progesterone
(d) Estrogen
Answer:
(c) Progesterone
Question 24.
Menstrual cycle is affected by:
(a) LH only
(b) FSH only
(c) Estrogen only
(d) FSH, LH & estrogen
Answer:
(d) FSH, LH & estrogen
Question 25.
from ovary which one releases?
(a) Primary Oocyte
(b) Secondary Oocyte
(c) Ovum
(d) Oogonium
Answer:
(b) Secondary Oocyte
Question 26.
In human beings placenta forms by:
(a) Chorion
(b) Amnion
(c) Allantois
(d) Allantois & utsine wall
Answer:
(a) Chorion
Question 27.
Antrum is the cavity of:
(a) Ovary
(b) Graffian follicle
(c) Blastula
(d) Gastrula
Answer:
(b) Graffian follicle
Question 28.
For the formation of hundred one men, how many meiotic divisions will be required?
(a) 202
(b) 101
(c) 126
(d) 127
Answer:
(d) 127
Question 29.
From 20 secondary spermatocytes how many sperms will form?
(a) 20
(b) 80
(c) 40
(d) 100
Answer:
(c) 40
Question 30.
From 100 Primary follicles how many ova will form?
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 400
Answer:
(a) 100
Question 31.
Corpus luteum and macula lutea both are:
(a) A source of hormone
(b) Found in human ovaries
(c) Characterized by a yellow colour
(d) Contributory in maintaining pregnancy
Answer:
(c) Characterized by a yellow colour
Question 32.
During which month of pregnancy movement of foetus & appearance of hairs on head observed?
(a) 3rd month
(b) 4th month
(c) 5th month
(d) 6th month
Answer:
(c) 5th month
Question 33.
The secreation of which gland nourishes the sperms?
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Seminal vesicle
(c) Bulbourethral gland
(d) Perineal gland
Answer:
(b) Seminal vesicle
Question 34.
The part of fallopian tube closest to ovary is:
(a) Isthmus
(b) Ampulla
(c) Infundibulum
(d) Cervix
Answer:
(c) Infundibulum
Question 35.
Parturition signal originates from:
(a) Fully developed foetus only
(b) Placenta only
(c) Placenta and fully developed foetus
(d) Oxytocin released from pituitary gland
Answer:
(c) Placenta and fully developed foetus
Question 36.
Polar bodies are formed during the production of:
(a) Spermatozoon
(b) Secondary Oocyte
(c) Ovum
(d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) & (c)
Question 37.
In females at the age of puberty menstruation starts. The start of menstruation is known as:
(a) Menarche
(b) Menopause
(c) Onset
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Menarche
Question 38.
LH is in high level during menstrual cycle is in:
(a) 7th day
(b) 14th day
(c) 20th day
(d) 28th day
Answer:
(b) 14th day
Question 39.
During embryonic development which embryonic layer first forms?
(a) Ectoderm
(b) Mesoderm
(c) Endoderm
(d) Ectoderm & Mesoderm both
Answer:
(c) Endoderm
Question 40.
In human beings placenta forms by:
(a) Amnion
(b) Chorion
(c) Allantois
(d) chorion & allantois
Answer:
(b) Chorion
Question 41.
Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?
(a) hcg
(b) Estrogen
(c) Progesteron
(d) LH
Answer:
(d) LH
Question 42.
Progesterone in the contraceptive pill:
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks implantation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Prevents ovulation
Question 43.
Copper-T prevents:
(a) Ovulation
(b) Fertilization of egg
(c) Implantation of zygote Mendel worked on:
(d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) & (c)
Question 44.
Mendel worked on:
(a) Edible Pea
(b) Wild Pea
(c) Garden Pea
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Garden Pea
Question 45.
Mendel’s laws were rediscovered by:
(a) Correns
(b) Tshermark
(c) Hugo de Vries
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 46.
Genes located on Y-chromosome are:
(a) Autosomal genes
(b) Sex-linked genes
(c) Holandric genes
(d) Mutant genes
Answer:
(c) Holandric genes
Question 47.
In Mirabilis jalapa red (RR) flower is crossed with white (WW) flower. Offspring produced pink (RW). This one is a case of:
(a) Dominant recessive
(b) Incomplete dominance
(c) Hybrid
(d) Supplementary genes
Answer:
(b) Incomplete dominance
Question 48.
Who is the father of genetics?
(a) Devries
(b) Darwin
(c) Mendel
(d) Morgan
Answer:
(c) Mendel
Question 49.
The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called:
(a) Alloy
(b) Multiple alleles
(c) Allelomorphs
(d) Paramorphs
Answer:
(c) Allelomorphs
Question 50.
In sickle cell anaemia which amino acid is substituted:
(a) Glutamic acid by valine in B-chain
(b) Valine by glutamic acid in α-chain
(c) glutamic acid by valine in α-chain
(d) Valine by glutamic acid in β-chain
Answer:
(a) Glutamic acid by valine in B-chain
Question 51.
A group of genes are getting deleted and undergoing some change it is due to:
(a) Gene mutation
(b) Aneuploidy
(c) Chromosomal mutation
(d) Gene modification
Answer:
(c) Chromosomal mutation
Question 52.
Which one is a disease in which one extra X-chromosome present?
(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(d) Bleeder’s syndrome
Answer:
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Question 53.
In which type of mutation minute changes occur?
(a) Point mutation
(b) Frame shift mutation
(c) Backward mutation
(d) Forward mutation
Answer:
(a) Point mutation
Question 54.
In diploid organism crossing over takes place that is responsible for:
(a) Linkage between genes
(b) Segregation of alleles
(c) Dominance of genes
(d) Recombination of linked genes
Answer:
(d) Recombination of linked genes
Question 55.
An individual with genotype Aa Bb the gametes will form:
(a) Aa, Bb
(b) AB, ab
(c) AB, ab, aB
(d) AB, ab, aB, Ab
Answer:
(d) AB, ab, aB, Ab
Question 56.
The law of purity of gametes is given by Mendel on the basis of:
(a) Monohybrid cross
(b) Dihybrid cross
(c) Test cross
(d) Back cross
Answer:
(a) Monohybrid cross
Question 57.
Smallest segment of genetic material affected by mutation is:
(a) Recen
(b) Cistron
(c) Muton
(d) Exon
Answer:
(c) Muton
Question 58.
The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of another is called:
(a) Codominant
(b) Supplementary
(c) Complementary
(d) Recessive
Answer:
(d) Recessive
Question 59.
A homozygous plant having red flowers is crossed with a homozygous plant bearing white flowers. The offsprings are:
(a) All with white flowers
(b) All with red flowers
(c) Half with white flowers
(d) Half with red flowers
Answer:
(b) All with red flowers
Question 60.
Lack of independent assortment of two genes A & B in fruit fly, Drosophila is due to:
(a) Recombination
(b) Linkage
(c) Crossing over
(d) Repulsion
Answer:
(b) Linkage
Question 61.
Crossing over occurs between two homologous chromosomes in:
(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene
Answer:
(c) Pachytene
Question 62.
In turner syndrome the chromosomes are:
(a) 44A + XO
(b) 44A + XXY
(c) 44A + XXX
(d) 44A + XYY
Answer:
(a) 44A + XO
Question 63.
Mother is homozygous B, and father is A. What will be the blood group in their progeny?
(a) AB & A
(b) AB & B
(c) A & B
(d) AB
Answer:
(b) AB & B
Question 64.
Down’s syndrome is due to:
(a) Linkage
(b) Sex-linked inheritance
(c) crossing over
(d) Non-disjunction of chromosome
Answer:
(d) Non-disjunction of chromosome
Question 65.
Test Cross is a cross between:
(a) Hybrid (F1) dominant parent
(b) Hybrid (F1) × recessive parent
(c) Hybrid (F1) × Hybrid (F1)
(d) Two distantly related species
Answer:
(b) Hybrid (F1) × recessive parent
Question 66.
The inheritance of which of the following is controlled by multiple alleles?
(a) Clour blindness
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Phenylketonuria
(d) Blood group
Answer:
(d) Blood group
Question 67.
In chromosomal mutation if genes ABCDEFGH is changed as ADCBEFGH. This change in genes position represents:
(a) Deletion
(b) Duplication
(c) Inversion
(d) Translocation
Answer:
(c) Inversion
Question 68.
Father is colour blind and mother is normal, the children will be:
(a) Daughters will be carrier
(b) Sons will be normal
(c) Sons will be colour blind
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Daughters will be carrier
Question 69.
The nearest relatives of man are:
(a) Old world monkeys
(b) New world monkeys
(c) Apes
(d) Lemurs
Answer:
(c) Apes
Question 70.
The fossil man found from the Shivalik hills of India is:
(a) Australopithecus
(b) Ramapithecus
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Cro-magnon man
Answer:
(b) Ramapithecus
Question 71.
Human evolution occurred in:
(a) Africa & America
(b) Africa & Asia
(c) Asia & Australia
(d) America & Australia
Answer:
(b) Africa & Asia
Question 72.
Which one is connecting link between animals & plants is:
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Euglena
(d) Amoeba
Answer:
(c) Euglena
Question 73.
Wings of birds & butterflies are:
(a) Homologous organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Vestigial organs
(d) Atavistic organs
Answer:
(b) Analogous organs
Question 74.
The theory of use and disuse of organs was given by:
(a) Weismann
(b) Lamarck
(c) Darwin
(d) Huxley
Answer:
(b) Lamarck
Question 75.
The book “Philosophic Zoologique” was written by:
(a) Hugo de vries
(b) Mendel
(c) Haeckel
(d) Lamarck
Answer:
(d) Lamarck
Question 76.
The most harmful struggle is between:
(a) Inter specific
(b) Intra specific
(c) Extra specific
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Intra specific
Question 77.
‘Ontogeny recapitulates phytogeny’ is a theory in favour of evidences of evolution is given by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Herbert spencer
(c) Hackel
(d) Morgan
Answer:
(c) Hackel
Question 78.
The organs those are similar in structure and origin but different in functions are known as:
(a) Homologous
(b) Analogous
(c) Vestigial
(d) both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(a) Homologous
Question 79.
Who proposed the “Theory of origin of species” by Natural selection?
(a) Hugo devries
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Weismann
(d) Charles Darwin & Alfred Wallace
Answer:
(d) Charles Darwin & Alfred Wallace
Question 80.
Which one show convergent evolution?
(a) Rat & Dog
(b) Dog fish & Whale
(c) Starfish & Cuttle fish
(d) Bacterium & Protozoan
Answer:
(b) Dogfish & Whale
Question 81.
Darwin made a sea voyage for:
(a) 2 yrs
(b) 4 yrs
(c) 3 yrs
(d) 5 yrs
Answer:
(d) 5 yrs
Question 82.
Theory of Pangenesis was given by:
(a) Weismann
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Hugo devries
Answer:
(b) Darwin
Question 83.
Mesozoic era is the age of:
(a) Fishes
(b) Reptiles
(c) Birds
(d) Mammals
Answer:
(b) Reptiles
Question 84.
Synthesis of DNA is called:
(a) Transcription
(b) Translation
(c) Replication
(d) Amination
Answer:
(c) Replication
Question 85.
Hydrogen bonds between cytosine & guanine are:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3
Question 86.
Which one is not involved in protein synthesis:
(a) Transcription
(b) Initiation
(c) Termination
(d) Elongation
Answer:
(a) Transcription
Question 87.
RNA contains:
(a) Hexose
(b) Ribose
(c) Fructose
(d) Glucose
Answer:
(b) Ribose
Question 88.
Who proved that DNA is the basic genetic material?
(a) Griffith
(b) Sutton & Boveri
(c) Hershey & Chase
(d) Watson
Answer:
(c) Hershey & Chase
Question 89.
A gene of operon which synthesizes a repressor protein is:
(a) Regulator gene
(b) Promoter gene
(c) Operator gene
(d) Structural gene
Answer:
(a) Regulator gene
Question 90.
‘One gene-one enzyme’ hypothesis states that:
(a) one gene codes for one enzyme
(b) one gene codes for one polypeptide
(c) one gene codes for many enzymes
(d) one gene regulates all enzymes
Answer:
(b) one gene codes for one polypeptide
Question 91.
Out of the total 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 amino acids, this suggests that:
(a) Degeneracy of codons
(b) overlapping of codons
(c) Ambiguous nature of codons
(d) Redundacy of codons
Answer:
(a) Degeneracy of codons
Question 92.
Temin & Baltimore are associated with the discovery of:
(a) Transcription
(b) RNA synthesis
(c) Reverse transcription
(d) Transposons
Answer:
(c) Reverse transcription
Question 93.
DNA replication is semiconservative was practically proved by:
(a) Hargovind Khorana
(b) Watson & Crick
(c) Meselson & Stahl
(d) Tayler
Answer:
(c) Meselson & Stahl
Question 94.
The synthesis of DNA as lagging strand takes place in segments, these segments are called:
(a) Double helix segments
(b) Satellite segment
(c) Komberg segment
(d) Okazaki segment
Answer:
(d) Okazaki segment
Question 95.
The term genome denotes:
(a) Haploid set of chromosomes
(b) Bivalent
(c) Monovalent
(d) Diploid set of chromosomes
Answer:
(a) Haploid set of chromosomes
Question 96.
DNA sequences that code for protein are known as:
(a) Intron
(b) Exons
(c) Control region
(d) Intervening sequences
Answer:
(b) Exons
Question 97.
In human chromosomes with the highest and least number of genes are present respectively in:
(a) Chromosomes 1 & x
(b) Chromosome 1 & y
(c) Chromosome 22 & x
(d) chromosome x & y
Answer:
(b) Chromosome 1 & y
Question 98.
Which of the following are the functions of RNA?
(a) It carries the genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesising polypeptides
(b) It carries amino acids to ribosomes
(c) It is a constituent component of ribosomes
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Question 99.
Instrons are:
(a) Coding part of m-RNA
(b) Gene present of DNA
(c) Non-coding part of m-RNA
(d) Sequence of essential amino acids
Answer:
(c) Non-coding part of m-RNA
Question 100.
The most stable RNA is:
(a) m-RNA
(b) t-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) s-RNA
Answer:
(c) r-RNA